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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 03:39

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Do you think there will ever be a movie that features a line such as “You graduated at the top of your class in liberal arts, we need your help”?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why did you choose not to join Mensa?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What would Spanish sound like if only latin and Greek words were used, like some romance analogy to anglish?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.